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	<title>Comments on: RE: Community and Normativity 
W.H. Chellis

I wan&#8230;</title>
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	<link>http://deregnochristi.org/2006/08/02/re-community-and-normativity-w/</link>
	<description>The Reign of Christ</description>
	<pubDate>Wed, 07 Jan 2009 05:02:28 +0000</pubDate>
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		<title>By: Christina Hitchcock</title>
		<link>http://deregnochristi.org/2006/08/02/re-community-and-normativity-w/#comment-236</link>
		<dc:creator>Christina Hitchcock</dc:creator>
		<pubDate>Sat, 09 Sep 2006 15:26:00 +0000</pubDate>
		<guid isPermaLink="false">http://deregnochristi.org/?p=43#comment-236</guid>
		<description>I agree -- the Church, by the power of the Holy Spirit, is the interpreter of Scripture (although I wouldn't limit that just to pastors and teachers).  I don't think "interpretation of" equals "authority over" but that may be well be a difference of semantics.&lt;BR/&gt;&lt;BR/&gt;I agree that the state as such is not the mediator of Scripture.  But the implication of several of the posts seems to be that the state is somehow supposed to be mediating the truth of the Scriptures, but (correct me if I'm wrong) doing so under the authority of the Church.  This is a troublesome position in more than one way.  The search for biblical support of such a position always leads to a comparison between modern nations and ancient Israel, a comparison which is completely unwarranted by Scripture.  This idea also leads to a kind of natural theology which says God is working equally (if not somewhat differently) in all human institutions.&lt;BR/&gt;&lt;BR/&gt;But, perhaps I'm seeing the argument going places that it isn't actually going.&lt;BR/&gt;&lt;BR/&gt;Christina</description>
		<content:encoded><![CDATA[<p>I agree &#8212; the Church, by the power of the Holy Spirit, is the interpreter of Scripture (although I wouldn&#8217;t limit that just to pastors and teachers).  I don&#8217;t think &#8220;interpretation of&#8221; equals &#8220;authority over&#8221; but that may be well be a difference of semantics.</p>
<p>I agree that the state as such is not the mediator of Scripture.  But the implication of several of the posts seems to be that the state is somehow supposed to be mediating the truth of the Scriptures, but (correct me if I&#8217;m wrong) doing so under the authority of the Church.  This is a troublesome position in more than one way.  The search for biblical support of such a position always leads to a comparison between modern nations and ancient Israel, a comparison which is completely unwarranted by Scripture.  This idea also leads to a kind of natural theology which says God is working equally (if not somewhat differently) in all human institutions.</p>
<p>But, perhaps I&#8217;m seeing the argument going places that it isn&#8217;t actually going.</p>
<p>Christina</p>
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		<title>By: W.H. Chellis</title>
		<link>http://deregnochristi.org/2006/08/02/re-community-and-normativity-w/#comment-237</link>
		<dc:creator>W.H. Chellis</dc:creator>
		<pubDate>Fri, 08 Sep 2006 20:27:00 +0000</pubDate>
		<guid isPermaLink="false">http://deregnochristi.org/?p=43#comment-237</guid>
		<description>Hi Christina,&lt;BR/&gt;&lt;BR/&gt;Agreed.  The Scripture has authority over the church.  Yet, God has established the church as the normative expounder of the meaning of scripture.&lt;BR/&gt;&lt;BR/&gt;Without an interpretor the scripture is just a book sitting on a shelf.  Who interprets?  The civil magistrate?  The acadamy?  Not-for-profit corporations?  For corporate corporations?  Whose interpretation is binding when they conflict?</description>
		<content:encoded><![CDATA[<p>Hi Christina,</p>
<p>Agreed.  The Scripture has authority over the church.  Yet, God has established the church as the normative expounder of the meaning of scripture.</p>
<p>Without an interpretor the scripture is just a book sitting on a shelf.  Who interprets?  The civil magistrate?  The acadamy?  Not-for-profit corporations?  For corporate corporations?  Whose interpretation is binding when they conflict?</p>
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		<title>By: Christina Hitchcock</title>
		<link>http://deregnochristi.org/2006/08/02/re-community-and-normativity-w/#comment-238</link>
		<dc:creator>Christina Hitchcock</dc:creator>
		<pubDate>Fri, 08 Sep 2006 19:46:00 +0000</pubDate>
		<guid isPermaLink="false">http://deregnochristi.org/?p=43#comment-238</guid>
		<description>I have to disagree with the idea that the church has authority over Scripture.  It is the Scripture which has authority over the Church.  It is the desire to control and "finish" the work of Scripture that leads to doctrines like papal infallibility.&lt;BR/&gt;&lt;BR/&gt;Christina</description>
		<content:encoded><![CDATA[<p>I have to disagree with the idea that the church has authority over Scripture.  It is the Scripture which has authority over the Church.  It is the desire to control and &#8220;finish&#8221; the work of Scripture that leads to doctrines like papal infallibility.</p>
<p>Christina</p>
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	<item>
		<title>By: Christina Hitchcock</title>
		<link>http://deregnochristi.org/2006/08/02/re-community-and-normativity-w/#comment-239</link>
		<dc:creator>Christina Hitchcock</dc:creator>
		<pubDate>Fri, 18 Aug 2006 01:55:00 +0000</pubDate>
		<guid isPermaLink="false">http://deregnochristi.org/?p=43#comment-239</guid>
		<description>The scriptures have authority over the Church, not vice versa.  It is the Church's desire to control the Scriptures that leads to things like papal infallibility.&lt;BR/&gt;&lt;BR/&gt;Christina</description>
		<content:encoded><![CDATA[<p>The scriptures have authority over the Church, not vice versa.  It is the Church&#8217;s desire to control the Scriptures that leads to things like papal infallibility.</p>
<p>Christina</p>
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		<title>By: MarkPele</title>
		<link>http://deregnochristi.org/2006/08/02/re-community-and-normativity-w/#comment-240</link>
		<dc:creator>MarkPele</dc:creator>
		<pubDate>Thu, 03 Aug 2006 17:38:00 +0000</pubDate>
		<guid isPermaLink="false">http://deregnochristi.org/?p=43#comment-240</guid>
		<description>Bill,&lt;BR/&gt;&lt;BR/&gt;It may very well be a semantic distinction.  I believe that both the state and church are required to deal with individuals within the structure of a family.  For example, I don't think a church could refuse the presence of a parent when dealing with a child.  Both the state and church have to respect the authority of the parents over children.&lt;BR/&gt;&lt;BR/&gt;So, to that extent, I think that one could say that family is inescapable in church and state, but to use the word &lt;I&gt;unit&lt;/I&gt; implies indivisibility.  And the indivisibility implies that the covenant head is the only representative - just like the CEO of a company is held to task for the performance of all within the company, or the king in the actions of the country.  That's why I have an indelible association between making the family the fundamental unit and Patriarchy.  So, I'm looking forward to your August post.</description>
		<content:encoded><![CDATA[<p>Bill,</p>
<p>It may very well be a semantic distinction.  I believe that both the state and church are required to deal with individuals within the structure of a family.  For example, I don&#8217;t think a church could refuse the presence of a parent when dealing with a child.  Both the state and church have to respect the authority of the parents over children.</p>
<p>So, to that extent, I think that one could say that family is inescapable in church and state, but to use the word <i>unit</i> implies indivisibility.  And the indivisibility implies that the covenant head is the only representative - just like the CEO of a company is held to task for the performance of all within the company, or the king in the actions of the country.  That&#8217;s why I have an indelible association between making the family the fundamental unit and Patriarchy.  So, I&#8217;m looking forward to your August post.</p>
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		<title>By: W.H. Chellis</title>
		<link>http://deregnochristi.org/2006/08/02/re-community-and-normativity-w/#comment-241</link>
		<dc:creator>W.H. Chellis</dc:creator>
		<pubDate>Thu, 03 Aug 2006 15:46:00 +0000</pubDate>
		<guid isPermaLink="false">http://deregnochristi.org/?p=43#comment-241</guid>
		<description>Mark,&lt;BR/&gt;&lt;BR/&gt;You will have to give me more time to tease out the position.  I do see the family as the basic unit of society in both church and state but I do not think you have rightly understood the implications.  You have confused me with the Patriarchy advocates.  This is not where I am going.  I think the August column will help clarify some of these issues.</description>
		<content:encoded><![CDATA[<p>Mark,</p>
<p>You will have to give me more time to tease out the position.  I do see the family as the basic unit of society in both church and state but I do not think you have rightly understood the implications.  You have confused me with the Patriarchy advocates.  This is not where I am going.  I think the August column will help clarify some of these issues.</p>
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		<title>By: MarkPele</title>
		<link>http://deregnochristi.org/2006/08/02/re-community-and-normativity-w/#comment-242</link>
		<dc:creator>MarkPele</dc:creator>
		<pubDate>Thu, 03 Aug 2006 15:14:00 +0000</pubDate>
		<guid isPermaLink="false">http://deregnochristi.org/?p=43#comment-242</guid>
		<description>Okay, I'm starting to have too many pokers in the fire, but I think I'm starting to get some hints of where some of the major disagreements lie.&lt;BR/&gt;&lt;BR/&gt;I think I have to side a bit with Baus on Sphere Sovereignty.  At least with one of the founding principles.  &lt;B&gt;Each sphere has direct authority from God to execute its legitimate power, and each sphere is distinct in its influence.&lt;/B&gt;&lt;BR/&gt;&lt;BR/&gt;I think Mr. Chellis wants to deny that.  For example, saying that the family is the fundamental unit in each sphere.  I believe this is incorrect.  The fundamental unit is all spheres is the individual.  In the family, the individual is joined, by birth and marriage into a unit subject to the authority of a father/husband.  In the church, an individual is a covenant member of a body of believers, subject to the authority of the elders.  In the state, an individual, by his location is covenantally subjected to the authority of the state.&lt;BR/&gt;&lt;BR/&gt;All of these spheres derive their authority directly from God, and are responsible to him alone for the authority they have in that sphere.&lt;BR/&gt;&lt;BR/&gt;What are the implications of this point?  The state can enforce legal obligations between husband and wife, or father and children.  The church can excommunicate an individual even to the objections of his parents.&lt;BR/&gt;&lt;BR/&gt;Marriage is an interesting  case study.  Despite claims to the contrary, marriage is solely within the family.  (I hear cries of disgust).  Why are the church and state interested in marriage?  Because marriage creates a new family, and that family has a different legal status within the state (e.g. adultery requires marriage) as well as within the church (only condoning marriage that is equally yoked).  Thus it is wholely appropriate for the state and church to be witnesses at a wedding.</description>
		<content:encoded><![CDATA[<p>Okay, I&#8217;m starting to have too many pokers in the fire, but I think I&#8217;m starting to get some hints of where some of the major disagreements lie.</p>
<p>I think I have to side a bit with Baus on Sphere Sovereignty.  At least with one of the founding principles.  <b>Each sphere has direct authority from God to execute its legitimate power, and each sphere is distinct in its influence.</b></p>
<p>I think Mr. Chellis wants to deny that.  For example, saying that the family is the fundamental unit in each sphere.  I believe this is incorrect.  The fundamental unit is all spheres is the individual.  In the family, the individual is joined, by birth and marriage into a unit subject to the authority of a father/husband.  In the church, an individual is a covenant member of a body of believers, subject to the authority of the elders.  In the state, an individual, by his location is covenantally subjected to the authority of the state.</p>
<p>All of these spheres derive their authority directly from God, and are responsible to him alone for the authority they have in that sphere.</p>
<p>What are the implications of this point?  The state can enforce legal obligations between husband and wife, or father and children.  The church can excommunicate an individual even to the objections of his parents.</p>
<p>Marriage is an interesting  case study.  Despite claims to the contrary, marriage is solely within the family.  (I hear cries of disgust).  Why are the church and state interested in marriage?  Because marriage creates a new family, and that family has a different legal status within the state (e.g. adultery requires marriage) as well as within the church (only condoning marriage that is equally yoked).  Thus it is wholely appropriate for the state and church to be witnesses at a wedding.</p>
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		<title>By: MarkPele</title>
		<link>http://deregnochristi.org/2006/08/02/re-community-and-normativity-w/#comment-243</link>
		<dc:creator>MarkPele</dc:creator>
		<pubDate>Thu, 03 Aug 2006 03:36:00 +0000</pubDate>
		<guid isPermaLink="false">http://deregnochristi.org/?p=43#comment-243</guid>
		<description>I'm still struggling to understand Mr. Baus's delineation of the sovereignty of the state, so I cannot comment too much.&lt;BR/&gt;What I would like to question is whether the Church is the only arbiter of the Word of God.  The way it is phrased, it looks like the magistrate who really wants to submit to the will of God in passing law needs to go to the Synod for an up or down vote - because the magistrate is somehow incapable of interpreting God's law.  Maybe I'm misunderstanding your point, but I find many examples to the contrary in scripture.&lt;BR/&gt;Psalm 2 tells rulers to "kiss the Son"  There is no sense that this relationship is brokered through the church.&lt;BR/&gt;Deut 17:18-20 commands kings to make a copy of the law.  While the copy is made in the presence of the priests (I assume to make sure that the copy is correct), the king is then commanded to keep this copy of the law &lt;I&gt;"It shall be with him and he shall read it all the days of his life, that he may learn to fear the LORD his God, by carefully observing all the words of this law and these statutes"&lt;/I&gt;  So, here, the king/magistrate is commanded to interpret the law, and I assume that his &lt;I&gt;vocation&lt;/I&gt; - his calling from God, for which God has gifted him - is to interpret God's law.</description>
		<content:encoded><![CDATA[<p>I&#8217;m still struggling to understand Mr. Baus&#8217;s delineation of the sovereignty of the state, so I cannot comment too much.<br />What I would like to question is whether the Church is the only arbiter of the Word of God.  The way it is phrased, it looks like the magistrate who really wants to submit to the will of God in passing law needs to go to the Synod for an up or down vote - because the magistrate is somehow incapable of interpreting God&#8217;s law.  Maybe I&#8217;m misunderstanding your point, but I find many examples to the contrary in scripture.<br />Psalm 2 tells rulers to &#8220;kiss the Son&#8221;  There is no sense that this relationship is brokered through the church.<br />Deut 17:18-20 commands kings to make a copy of the law.  While the copy is made in the presence of the priests (I assume to make sure that the copy is correct), the king is then commanded to keep this copy of the law <i>&#8220;It shall be with him and he shall read it all the days of his life, that he may learn to fear the LORD his God, by carefully observing all the words of this law and these statutes&#8221;</i>  So, here, the king/magistrate is commanded to interpret the law, and I assume that his <i>vocation</i> - his calling from God, for which God has gifted him - is to interpret God&#8217;s law.</p>
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