DWilson

Darryl has raised the question of whether or not the FV really represents a high ecclesiology. If the need of the hour is a restoration of the doctrine of the church, and if FV types say we are all about that, then isn’t it inconsistent if the FV is spread across denominations and does not itself function as a church?

ndrew offered the observation that FV is a classic movement — and he is exactly right. As a movement, it will suffer the temptations that movements do and exhibit the strengths that movements do. As it happens, one of the tenets of this movement is the need for a higher ecclesiology.

Andrew gave a number of good examples, but let me give a couple more, examples which present a problem for how Darryl has framed the question. Was the Reformation a movement, or a church? If it wasn’t a church, then how could the Reformers have had a high ecclesiology? Was the Puritan movement in 16th and 17th century England a movement or a church? To take Darryl’s  options, was the Reformation a Bible study, a semi-organized parachurch thing like ACE, or a church? The same questions can be posed for the Puritans.

Now, a good historian can pick out the basic trajectory of the Reformation, and of the Puritans, but this does not prevent the wild variations that we actually see in history. We can discern the same sorts of variations among those who identify themselves as FV.

On ecclesiology, it is sufficient, if we say that a high ecclesiology is important, for those of us in the FV to be faithful churchmen, attached to the church in our respective places, and to be dutiful and faithful sons of those communions. We need to live in our churches the way we say that all Christians should be living in their churches. If we are doing that, there is no inconsistency, even if there are “trans-denominational doings” going on, and even if a full-fledged movement develops. If any of us joined that movement instead of our churches, that would be a severe problem. But we don’t have that problem — because all of us have a high ecclesiology.

So my question for Darryl is this. Can you frame an ecclesiological objection to the “institution” of FV that would not apply, with equal or greater force, to the “institution” of the Reformation and to the “institution” of the Puritan movement of the 16th century?